在等差数列an中,d≠0,a1,a2,a4成等比数列,则其公比Q为-搜答案-搜狗做题网

a1=a3-2d=8-2da5=a3+2d=8+2da17=a3+14d=8+14d所以,（8+2d）^2=(8+2d)(8+14d)解得：d1=2,d2=0（舍去）综上,An=8+2(n-3)=2n

a7=a1+6d8=a1+6*(-1/3)=a1-2a1=10再问：这是乘号吗？*再答：对的再问：a1-2这是a1的负2次方还是a1减2再答：a1减2

额..a1=da2=2dq=a2/a1=2d/d=2.

a10-a5=(10-5)d10-0=5dd=2a5-a1=(5-1)d=4*2=8a1=a5-8=0-8=-8所以a1=-8,d=2

由a1=0，公差d≠0，得到an=（n-1）d，则ak=a1+a2+a3+…+a7=（a1+a7）+（a2+a6）+（a3+a5）+a4=7a4=21d，而ak=（k-1）d，所以k-1=21，解得k

a1+4d＝a5＝0a1+9d＝a10＝10两式相减得5d＝10.所以公差d＝2,导入得a1＝－8

在等差数列{an}中,a1=10,公差为d,（1）由题意,S10=10a1+45d>0,得d>-20/9；S11=11a1+55d

由题意可得a32＝a1a7，故(a1+2d)2＝a1(a1+6d)，解之可得d=a12，或d=0（舍去）故a1+a3a2+a4=a1+(a1+2×a12)a1+a12+(a1+3×a12)=3a14a

解题思路：数列································解题过程：

a1+a6=12,a1+(a1+5d)=12,a4=a1+3d=7解这2条式子得a1=1,d=2

由等差数列公式：an=a1+（n-1）d,有8=a1+（7-1）*（-1/3）8=a1-6*1/38=a1-2a1=8+2a1=10答：a1=10

a1,a2,a4,成等比数列a2^2=a1a4(a1+d)^2=a1(a1+3d)解得a1=dan=a1+(n-1)d=nd数列a1,a3,ak,ak1,ak2…akn也成等比数列公比q=a3/a1=

由等差数列{an}中,若公差d≠0,a2是a1与a4的等比中项可知,a2*a2=a1*a4,而a2=a1+d,a4=a1+3d,代入上式可得：a1=d；再由数列a1,a2,ak1,ak2,...akn

a5=a1+4d；a10=a1+9d；两式相减5d=10；解得d=2；带入任意一式,解得a1=-8；

d=(a7-a4)/3=3a1=1

a1,a2,a4成等比数列(a2)^2=a1*a4(a2)^2=(a2-d)(a2+2d)(a2)^2=(a2)^2+a2d-2d^2a2d=2d^2a2=2d(a1+a2+a4)／(a2+a4+a8

是等比数列吧?3a(n+1)-an=03a(n+1)=ana(n+1)/an=1/3,等比1/3a1=2an=2/3^(n-1)=6/3^n

a(n)=1+(n-1)da(n+1)=1+ndSn=(1+an)n/2=(2+nd-d)n/2(1+Sn)/(n(1-a(n+1)))=-((4+nd-d)/n)/(2n(nd))=-2/(nd)-

在等差数列{an}中Sn=(a1+an)*n/2=35即(11+a1)n=70有因为an=a1+(n-1)*2=11两式连解a1=3,n=5或a1=-1,n=7再问：方程具体怎么解的再答：代入法a1+

由题意得：a22=a1a4即（a1+d）2=a1（a1+3d）又d≠0，∴a1=d又a1，a3，ak1，ak2，，akn，成等比数列，∴该数列的公比为q＝a3a1＝3dd＝3，所以akn＝a1•3n+